SST STUDY MATERIAL

HISTORY, CIVICS , GEOGRAPHY & ECONOMICS

CBSE GRADE IX

Strictly based on NCERT

CONTENTS…

CHAPTER NUMBER	CHAPTER NAME	PAGE NO 3-13
*HISTORY*
Chapter 1	The French Revolution
Chapter 2	Socialism in Europe and Russian Revolution
Chapter 3	Nazism and the rise of Hitler
Chapter 4	Forest Society and Colonialism
*CIVICS* PAGE NO 14- 30
Chapter 1	What is Democracy? Why Democracy?
Chapter 2	Constitutional Design
Chapter 3	Electoral Politics
Chapter 4	Working of Institutions
Chapter 5	Democratic Rights
*GEOGRAPHY* PAGE NO 31- 45
Chapter 1	India- Size and Location
Chapter 2	Physical features of India
Chapter 3	Drainage
Chapter 4	Climate
Chapter 5	Natural Vegetation and Wildlife
Chapter 6	Population
*ECONOMICS* PAGE NO 46- 58
Chapter 1	The Story of Village Palampur
Chapter 2	People as a Resource
Chapter 3	Poverty as Challenge
Chapter 4	Food Security in India

HISTORY

DATE: DAY:

1. THE FRENCH REVOLUTION

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. Storming of the Bastille

(a) 14th July, 1789 (b) 14th July, 1798 (c) 14th June, 1789 (d) 14th June, 1798

2. The Bastille symbolised

(a) Benevolence of the king (b) despotic power of the king

3. 18th century French society was divided into

(a) Castes (b) four Estates (c) three Estates (d) two Estates

4. Which of the following constituted the privileged class?

(a) Clergy and peasants (b) Peasants and nobility

5. The most important of the privileges enjoyed by the clergy and nobility

(a) Right to collect dues (b) ownership of land

6. Which of the following believed social position must depend on merit?

(a) Middle class (b) Nobility (c) Workers (d) Peasants

7. Society based on freedom, equal laws and opportunities was advocated by

(a) Middle class and people of the Third Estate

(b) clergy and nobility

(d) Englishmen Georges Danton and Arthur Young

8. Which of the following refuted the doctrine of divine and absolute right?

(a) John Locke (b) Rousseau (c) Montesquieu (d) Voltaire

9. Who advocated government based on Social Contract?

(a) Darwin (b) Spencer (c) Rousseau (d) Montesquieu

10. Division of power within the government was put forth in

(a) 'Two Treaties of Government' (b) 'The Spirit of the Laws'

11. King in France at the time of the Revolution

(a) Louis XIV (b) Louis XVI (c) Marie Antoinette (d) Nicholas II

12. Political body of France

(a) Duma (b) Reichstag (c) Lok Sabha (d) Estates General

13. Voting in the Estates General was conducted on the principle of

(a) Each member one vote (b) male adult franchise

14. The Estates General was last convened in

(a) 1604 (b) 1614 (c) 1416 (d) 1641

15. Where did the Third Estate form and announce the National Assembly?

(a) Indoor Tennis Court (b) Hall of Mirrors (c) Firoz Shah Ground (d) Winter Palace

16. Members of the Third Estate were led by

(a) Louis XVI and Marie Antionette (b) Lenin and Kerensky

17. Which of the following was the main objective of the Constitution of 1791?

(a) To limit the powers of the king alone (b) do away with feudal privileges

18. A broken chain symbolised

a) Chains used to fetter slaves (b) Strength lies in unity

19. The winged woman personified

(а) National colours of France (b) Act of becoming free

20. Bundle of rods or fasces symbolised

(a) Royal power (b) Equality before law

21. Which of the following symbolised Eternity?

(a) Sceptre (b) Eye within a triangle radiating light

22. Which of the following were the national colours of France during the?

(a) Blue-green-yellow (b) Red-green-blue

23. National Anthem of France

(a) Vande Matram (b) Roget de L Isle (c) Le Moniteur Universal (d) Morseillaise

24. Members of the Jacobian Club were known as

(a) Conservatives (b) Revolutionaries (c) Terrorists (d) San-culottes

25. France on 21st September, 1792 was declared a

(a) Socialist State (b) Democracy (c) Communist State (d) Republic

26. Which of the following was a factor in the rise of Napoleon?

(a) Fall of the Jacobin government (b) Robespierre Reign of Terror

27. French legacy to the world

(a) Democracy (b) Socialism and nationalism

DATE: DAY:

2. SOCIALISM IN EUROPE AND RUSSIAN REVOLUTION

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. Which among the following groups was against any kind of political or social change?

(a) Nationalists (b) conservatives (c) liberals (d) radicals

2. The people who wanted to put an immediate end to the existing governments in Europe

(In 1815) were called:

(a) Nationalists (b) liberals (c) revolutionaries (d) radicals

3. Which of these statements is/are correct about Europe after the French Revolution?

(a) Suddenly it seemed possible to change the aristocratic society of the 18th century.

(b) However not everyone wanted a complete transformation of society.

(d) All the above

4. The majority religion of Russia was ___________ but the empire also included _________

(a) Russian Orthodox Church, grown out of Greek Orthodox Church

(b) Russian Orthodox Church

(d) Both (b) and (c)

5. Which of the following factors made autocracy unpopular in Russia?

(a) The German origin of the Tsarina Alexandra

(b) Poor advisors like the Monk Rasputin

(d) Both (a) and (b)

6. Which of the following statements is incorrect about the Socialists till 1914?

(a) They helped various associations to win seats in the parliaments in Europe

(b) Socialists, supported by strong figures in parliamentary politics, shaped and influenced legislation

(d) Governments continued to be run by conservatives, liberals and radicals

7. How can you say that the ‘liberals’ were not ‘democrats’?

(a) They did not believe in universal adult franchise

(b) They felt that only men of property should have a right to vote
(c) Women should not have right to vote

(d) All the above

8. Which of the following statements is not correct about the ‘radicals’?

(a) They supported women’s right to vote

(b) They opposed the privileges of great landowners

(d) They wanted a government based on the majority of a country’s population

9. What kind of developments took place as a result of new political trends in Europe?

(a) Industrial Revolution occurred (b) New cities came up

10. By the mid-19th century in Europe, the idea which attracted widespread attention on the restructuring of society was

(a) Capitalism (b) Socialism (c) Dictatorship (d) None

11. Who conspired in Italy to bring about a revolution?

(a) Bismarck (b) Karl Marx (c) Giuseppe Mazzini (d) None

12. When was the Socialist Revolutionary Party formed in Russia?

13. What were the demands made by the workers in St. Petersburg who went on a strike?

(a) Reduction of working time to eight hours (b) Increase in wages
(c) Improvement in working conditions (d) All the above

14. Why did the Tsar dismiss the first Duma within 75 days of its election?

(a) Because it was incapable of taking good decisions

(b)Because the Tsar did not want anyone to question his authority
(c) The term of first Duma was of 75 days only

(d) None of the above

15. In the World War I, which started in 1914, Russia fought against

(a) Britain and France (b) Germany and Austria (c) America (d) All the above

16. What was the position of Russia’s army in Germany and Austria between 1914 and 1916?

(a) Russian army brought a lot of destruction in Germany and Austria

(b) It killed a large member of people and was victorious

(d) None of the above

17. Which of the following statements is/are correct?

(a) By 1916, railway lines in Russia began to break down

(b) There were labour shortages and small workshops producing essentials were shut down

(d) All the above

18. Why did a lockout take place at a factory on the right bank of the River Neva on22 February, 1917?

(a) It was extremely cold for the workers to work, because of frost and heavy snow

(b) The workers were being forced to join the army

(d) Both (a) and (c)

19. On 27th February 1917, soldiers and striking workers gathered to form a council called

(a) Soviet Council (b) Petrograd Soviet (c) Moscow Union (d) Russian Council

20. When did the Tsar abdicate the throne?

(a) 28 February, 1917 (b) 2 March, 1917 (c) 10 April, 1917 (d) 15 May, 1918

21. Which of these demands is/are referred to as Lenin’s 'April Theses'?

a) World War I should be brought to an end

(b) Land should be transferred to the peasants
(c) Banks should be nationalised

(d) All the above

22. Why were most of the Bolshevik Party members initially surprised by ‘April Theses’?

(a) They wanted continuation of World War I

(b) They thought that time was not ripe for a socialist revolution
(c) Government needed to be supported at this time

(d) All the above

23. Who led the Bolshevik group in Russia during Russian Revolution?

(a) Karl Marx (b) Friedrich Engels (c) Vladimir Lenin (d) Trotsky

24. Who started ‘Collectivisation Programme’ in Russia?

(a) Lenin (b) Karl Marx (c) Rasputin (d) Stalin

25. Socialists took over the government in Russia through the?

(a) October Revolution in 1917 (b) November Revolution in 1918
(c) December Revolution in 1919 (d) February Revolution in 1920

26. After 1905, most committees and trade unions were:

(a) Declared illegal (b) declared legal (c) active (d) none of the above

27. At the beginning of the 20th century, the majority of Russian people worked in the:

(a) Industrial sector (b) Agricultural sector

28. In the Russian Civil War the Bolsheviks and the socialist revolutionaries were represented by which of the following colours?

(a) Whites and Reds (b) Greens and Whites (c) Reds and Greens (d) None of these

29. The commune of farmers was known as:

(a) Tsar (b) Duma (c) Mir (d) Cossacks

DATE: DAY:

3. NAZISM AND THE RISE OF HITLER

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. When did Hitler become the Chancellor of Germany?
(a) January 30, 1923                (b) January 30, 1929
(c) January 30, 1933                (d) March 3, 1933

2. Who amongst these offered chancellorship to Hitler?
(a) Churchil                 (b) Goebbels                (c) Helmuth                 (d) Hindenburg

3. When did Hitler try to seize control of Bavaria and capture Berlin?
(a) 1919           (b) 1923           (c) 1929           (d) 1933

4. When did Hitler join German Worker’s Party?
(a) 1918           (b) 1919           (c) 1920           (d) 1921

5. The Nazi Party became the largest party by?
(a) 1930           (b) 1931           (c) 1932           (d) 1933

6. Who among the following was assigned the responsibility of economic recovery by Hitler?
(a) Goebbels                (b) Hindenburg           (c) Hjalmar Schacht    (d) Adam Smith

7. US entered into World War II due to
(a) annexation of Poland by Germany            (b) aerial bombing on London
(c) Japanese attack on Pearl Harbour              (d) non payment of reparation dues by Germans

8. The Great Depression was a period of
(a) Political crisis         (b) Social crisis            (c) Global crisis           (d) Economic crisis

9. Hitler took over the German Worker’s Party and renamed it as
(a) Secular German Workers               (b) Socialist Workers of Germany
(c) National Socialist Party                 (d) National Workers of Germany

10. What was the name given to gas chambers by Nazis?
(a) Killing Machine                             (b) Solution Areas

(c) Revolutionary Ground                   (d) Disinfection Areas

11. What was ‘Dawes Plan’?
(a) A plan secure loans from US bankers        (b) A plan to ease reparation terms on Germany
(c) A plan to overtake Rhineland mines         (d) An extension of Versailles treaty

12. Who was the propaganda minister of Hitler?
(a) Hjalmar Schacht                (b) Hindenburg           (c) Goebbels    (d) Helmuth

13. Why Weimar Republic was called ‘November Criminals’?
(a) Because they signed armistice agreement and conceded Germany to Allies
(b) because they crushed Spartacists with the help of free Corps
(c) because they misused Article 48
(d) they secured loans from USA

14. Who from the following were not ‘November Criminals’?
(a) Socialists (b) Spartacists (c) Catholics (d) Democrats

15. Reichstag refers to
(a) Imperial Germany (b) German Parliament

(c) French Parliament              (d) Imperial England

16. During First World War against whom Germany did not fight?
(a) Austria                   (b) England                 (c) France        (d) Belgium

17. When was the First World War fought?
(a) 1911-1914              (b) 1914-1918             (c) 1916-1920              (d) 1941-1945

18. When did Germany withdraw herself from the League of Nations?
(i) 1931 (ii) 1932 (iii) 1933 (iv) 1934

21. Who supported the Weimar Republic?
(i) Socialists, Liberals, Democrats (ii) Conservatives
(ii) Catholics, Liberals, Conservatives (iv) Socialists, Catholics, Democrats

22. The German Parliament is known as:
(i) National Parliament (ii) German Legislature
(iii) Reichstag (iv) German National Congress

23. Who were called the ‘November criminals’?
(i) The Opponents of Weimar Republic (ii) Chancellor of Germany
(iii) The supporters of Weimar Republic (iv) None of the above

24. What was ‘Jungvolk’ in Nazi Germany?
(i) A Book (ii) Jews Teachers (iii) Schools (iv) Youth organisation

25. Who was the propaganda minister of Hitler?
(i) Hjalmar Schacht (ii) Hindenburg (iii) Goebbels (iv) Helmuth

26. After the Second World War, which committee was formed to prosecute Nazi war criminals for War Crimes?
(i) Treaty of Versailles (ii) Reichstag committee
(iii) International Military Tribunal (iv) International Peace Forum

27. When did the Second World War come to an end?
(i) March 1945 (ii) May 1945 (iii) June 1945 (iv) March 1948

28. Which countries signed Tripartite Pact?
(i) Germany, Austria and Japan (ii) Germany, Italy and Japan
(iii) UK, France and Japan (iv) France, UK and USSR

DATE: DAY:

4. FOREST SOCIETY AND COLONIALISM

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. Who were the colonial powers in Indonesia?

(a) British (b) Dutch (c) French (d) Portuguese

2. Which place is now famous as a rice-producing island in Indonesia?

(a) Java (b) Sumatra (c) Borne (d) Kalimantan

3. Where did the Dutch start forest management in Indonesia?

(a) Java (b) Sumatra (c) Bali (d) None of the above

4. Who were ‘Kalangs’ of Java?

(a) Dynasty of rulers (b) Skilled forest cutters and shifting cultivators

5. The Kalangs resisted the Dutch in

(a) 1700 (b) 1750 (c) 1770 (d) 1800

6. According to the forest laws enacted by the Dutch in Java,

(a) Villagers’ access to forest was restricted

(b) Wood could be cut only for specified purposes like making river boats or constructing houses

(d) All the above

7. What was the system of ‘blandongdiensten’?

(a) A system of education (b) Industrialisation

8. What did Surontiko Samin of Randublatung village, a teak forest village, begin questioning?

(a) The foreign policy of the Dutch (b) State ownership of the forest

9. What was the policy followed by the British in India towards forests during the First and the Second World Wars?

(a) The forest department cut trees freely to meet British war needs

(b) Cutting of trees was strictly prohibited for everyone, including the British

(d) None of the above

10. What is the goal of governments across Asia and Africa since the 1980s?

(a) Conservation of forests (b) Collection of timber

11. Who wrote the book ‘The Forests of India’ in the year 1923?

(a) David Spurr (b) E.P. Stebbing (c) Verrier Elvin (d) John Middleton

12. Which of the following is not associated with Sweden agriculture?

(a) Karacha (b) Jhum (c) Bewar (d) Penda

13. Indian Forest Service was set up in the year:

(a) 1865 (b) 1864 (c) 1854 (d) 1884

14. Which of the following was not a tribal community?

(a) Karacha (b) Jhum (c) Korava (d) Yerukula

15. The system of scientific forestry stands for:

(a) System whereby the local farmers were allowed to cultivate temporarily within a plantation

(b) System of cutting old trees and plant new ones

(d) Disappearance of forests

16. In which year the Baster rebellion took place?

17. In South-East Asia shifting agriculture is known as:

(A) Chitemene (b) Tavy (c) Lading (d) Milpa

18. The Gond forest community belongs to which of the following

(a) Chhattisgarh (b) Jharkhand (c) Jammu and Kashmir (d) Gujarat

19. Forests consisting of which types of trees were preferred by the Forest Department?

(a) Forests having trees which provided fuel, fodder and leaves

(b) Forests having soft wood

20. Which of the following term is not associated with shifting agriculture in India?

(a) Penda (b) Bewar (c) Khandad (d) Lading

21. Which of the following is a community of skilled forest cutters?

(a) Maasais of Africa (b) Mundas of Chotanagpur

22. Why did the government decide to ban shifting cultivation?

(a) To grow trees for railway timber

(b) When a forest was burnt, there was the danger of destroying valuable timber

(d) All the above reasons

23. Wooden planks lay across railway tracks to hold these tracks in a position are called:

(a) Beams (b) Sleepers (c) Rail fasteners (d) none of these

24. Which of the following was the most essential for the colonial trade and movement of goods?

(a) Roadways (b) Railways (c) Airways (d) River ways

25. Which of the following is a commercial crop?

(a) Rice (b) Wheat (c) Cotton (d) Maize

CIVICS

DATE: DAY:

1. WHAT IS DEMOCRACY? WHY DEMOCRACY?

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. The word ‘Democracy’ comes from the Greek word –
(a) Democracia (b) Demokratia (c) Demos (d) Kratia

2.What kind of government is there in Myanmar?
(a) Government elected by the people (b) Communist government

(c) Army rule                                                   (d) Monarchy

3.The head of the government in Nepal is the:
(a) President                (b) Prime Minister                   (c) King                       (d) Vice President

4. Who led a military coup in Pakistan in 1999?
(a) Benazir Bhutto      (b) Nawaz Sharif         (c) Pervez Musharraf        (d) None of the above

5. In which case was the real power with external powers and not with the locally elected representatives?
(a) India in Sri Lanka                                      (b) US in Iraq

(b) One person has one vote and each vote has one value
(c) A person can vote only once in his life

(d) Both (a) and (c)

7. How many members are elected to the National People’s Congress from all over China?
(a) 3050 (b) 3000 (c) 4000 (d) 2000

8. Why can the Chinese government not be called a democratic government even though elections are held there?
(a) Army participates in election

(b) Government is not accountable to the people
(c) Some parts of China are not represented at all

(d) Government is always formed by the Communist Party

9.Which party always won elections in Mexico since its independence in 1930 until 2000?
(a) Revolutionary Party                                   (b) Mexican Revolutionary Party
(c) Institutional Revolutionary Party              (d) Institutional Party

10. Democracy must be based on
(a) One-party system                                       (b) Free and fair election

(c) Choice from only the ruling party             (d) All the above

11. When did Zimbabwe attain independence and from whom?
(a) 1970, from Black minority rule                 (b) 1880, from White minority rule
(c) 1980, from Americans                               (d) 1980, from White minority rule

12. Which party has ruled Zimbabwe since its independence and who is its ruler?
(a) ZANU-PF, Robert Mugabe                                   (b) ZANU-PF, Kenneth Kaunda
(c) Zimbabwe Freedom Party, Nelson Mandela         (d) Zimbabwe Party, P Johnson

13. Which of these features is/are necessary to provide the basic rights to the citizens?
(a) Citizens should be free to think                 (b) should be free to form associations
(c) Should be free to raise protest                   (d) All the above

14.Which organ of the government is required to protect the rights of the citizens?
(a) Executive               (b) Legislature             (c) Independent judiciary                  (d) Police

15. What is Constitutional Law?
(a) Provisions given in the Constitution                      (b) Law to make Constitution
(c) Law to set up Constituent Assembly                    (d) none of the above

16.Which of these is permitted under the Rule of Law?
(a) Prime Minister can be punished for violating the Constitution

(b) Police has a right to kill anybody
(c) Women can be paid lesser salaries

(d) President can rule for as long as he wants.

17. Some of the drawbacks of democracy is
(a) Instability and delays                                            (b) corruption and hypocrisy
(c) Politicians fighting among themselves                  (d) all the above

18. In which of these cases can democracy not provides a complete solution?
(a) Removing poverty completely                               (b) Providing education to all
(c) Giving jobs to all                                                   (d) All the above

19. In which period did China face one of the worst famines that have occurred in the world?
(a) 1932-36                  (b) 1958-61                 (c) 2001-2002              (d) 2004-2007

20 A democratic government is better than a non-democratic government because
(a) It may or may not be accountable

(b) It always responds to the needs of the people
(c) It is a more accountable form of government

(d) None of the above

21. Democracy improves the quality of decision-making because
(a) Decisions are taken by educated people

(b) Decisions are taken by consultation and discussion
(c) Decisions are taken over a long period of time

(d) All decisions are approved by judiciary

22.How does democracy allows us to correct its own mistakes?
(a) Mistakes are hidden and cannot be corrected
(b) Re-electing the same government to enable it to correct its mistakes
(c) The rulers can be changed                         (d) none of the above

23.The most common form that democracy takes in our time is that of
(a) Limited democracy                        (b) representative democracy
(c) Maximum democracy                    (d) none of the above

DATE:                                                                                     DAY:

2. CONSTITUTIONAL DESIGN

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. On what charges was Nelson Mandela sentenced to life imprisonment?

(a) For treason (b) For breaking the laws

2. What is apartheid?

(a) Election in proportion to population

(b) Official policy of discrimination against the Blacks

(d) None of the above

3. In which way did the system of apartheid discriminate among the South Africans?

(a) Restricted social contacts between the races (b) Segregation of public facilities

4. Name the organisation that led the struggle against the policies of segregation.

(a) African National Conference (b) African Neutral Congress

5. Why did the white regime decide to change its policies?

(a) Increase in protests and struggles

(b) Government realised that repression was becoming difficult

(d) Both (a) and (b)

6. Which of these did not form a part of the changed attitude of South African government?

(a) Discriminatory laws were repealed

(b) Ban on political parties and media was lifted

(d) More discriminatory laws were passed

7. When did South Africa become a democratic country?

(a) 26 April, 1995 (b) 26 April, 1994 (c) 24 March, 1994 (d) 27 April, 1996

8. With the end of apartheid, who became the first President of South African Republic?

(a) F.W. de Klerk (b) P.W. Botha (c) Nelson Mandela (d) None of the above

9. Name the autobiography of Nelson Mandela.

(a) The Long Walk to Freedom (b) South Africa Wins Freedom

10. What did the black population want in the new Constitution?

(a) A black President (b) Substantial social and economic rights

11. What did the white minority want from the new Constitution?

(a) Protect its privileges and property (b) A separate country for themselves

12. During negotiations for making the Constitution, the whites agreed to

(a) The principle of majority rule (b) One person one vote

13. Which of the following sentences is correct?

(a) All countries that have constitutions are necessarily democratic

(b) All countries that are democratic necessarily have constitutions

(d) None of the above

14. When did Motilal Nehru draft a Constitution for India?

15. Where was the 1931 session of Indian National Congress held?

(a) Nagpur (b) Karachi (c) Calcutta (d) Delhi

16. Which of these features were accepted by all the Indian leaders much before they sat down to make the Constitution?

(a) Universal adult franchise (b) Right to freedom

17. According to which Act were the elections held to provincial legislatures in India in 1937?

(a) Government of India Act, 1935 (b) Government of India Act, 1919

18. Which of these inspired our leaders while framing the Constitution?

(a) Ideals of the French Revolution (b) Parliamentary democracy in Britain

19. Which revolution in the world inspired the Indians to set up a socialist economy?

(a) French Revolution (b) Turkish Revolution

20. Name the body which framed the Constitution of India?

(a) General Assembly (b) Constituent Assembly

21. When did the Assembly adopt the Constitution?

(a) 26 November, 1949 (b) 26 December, 1949

22. Who was the chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Constituent Assembly?

(a) Dr. Rajendra Prasad (b) Jawaharlal Nehru

23. How many amendments were considered before adopting the Constitution?

(a) Around 500 (b) Around 2000 (c) Around 1550 (d) Around 1000

24. Who said the following?

“I shall work for an India in which the poorest shall feel that it is their country ..... InWhich all communities shall live in perfect harmony?”

(a) Mahatma Gandhi (b) Jawaharlal Nehru

25. Who among these leaders was a bitter critic of Mahatma Gandhi?

(a) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad (b) Sarojini Naidu

26. “The ambition of the greatest man of our generation has been to wipe every tear from every eye.” Who was Nehru referring to in his speech?

(a) Abdul Ghaffar Khan (b) Mahatma Gandhi

27. The Constitution begins with a short statement of its basic values. What is it called?

(a) Preface (b) Preamble (c) Introduction (d) Article

28. Match these guiding values with their meanings.

(A) Sovereign (i) government will not favour any particular religion

(B) Republic (ii) People will have supreme right to make decisions without

Outside Interference

(D) Secular (iv) There should be a feeling of brotherhood among all the people

(a) A-(iii), B-(i), C-(ii), D-(IV) (b) A-(ii), B-(iii), C-(iv), D-(i)

29. Which of these countries is/are examples of a Republic?

(a) USA (b) India (c) South Africa (d) All the above

30. What kind of ‘Justice’ does our Preamble provide?

(a) Economic Justice (b) Political Justice (C) Social Justice (d) All the above

31. Which of these positions is correct in relation to the ‘Sovereign’ status of India?

(a) USA can decide India’s foreign policy

(b) USSR can support the CPI (M) in setting up its government here

(d) Pakistan can control India’s Armed Forces

32. Who was the chairman of the Constituent Assembly?

(a) Jawaharlal Nehru (b) Dr. Rajendra Prasad

33. Which of the following days is celebrated to mark the enforcement of the constitution?

(a) Republic Day (b) Independence Day

34. The Indian constitution has borrowed from

(i) Ideas from French Revolution (ii) The British Constitution

(iii) The Bill of Rights of the US (iv) Israeli Constitution

(a) i, ii, iv (b) i, ii, iii (c) ii, iii, iv (d) i, ii, iv

35. The Constituent Assembly met for how many days?

(a) 114 (b) 280 (c) 365 (d) 150

36. Who was the chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Indian constitution?

(a) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar (b) Jawaharlal Nehru

37. When did the Indian constitution come into force?

(a) 26th Nov, 1949 (b) 15th August, 1947

38. Who prepared the draft of a constitution for India in 1928?

(a) Motilal Nehru (b) B. R. Ambedkar

39When was the Constitution of India adopted?

(a) 26th Nov, 1949 (b) 26th Jan, 1949 (c) 26th Jan, 1950 (d) 26th Nov, 1950

40. Drafting Committee was chaired by:

(a) Gandhiji (b) Pt. J.L. Nehru (c) Baldev Singh (d) Dr B.R. Ambedkar

DATE: DAY:

3. ELECTORAL POLITICS

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. Who led the ‘Nyaya Yudh’?

(a)Chaudhary Charan Singh (b)ChaudharyDeviLal
(c) Ajit Singh (d) None of these

2. What was the promise Devi Lal made to the farmers and small businessmen?

(a) He would waive the loans of farmers and small businessmen

(b) He would lessen the rate of interest on their loans

(d) He would provide free seeds and pesticides to them

3. Which of these is not a feature of Indian democracy?

(a) India has the largest number of voters in the world

(b) India’s Election Commission is very powerful

(d) ) In India, the losing parties refuse to accept the electoral verdict

4. Which of these is not a condition of a democratic election?

(a) Everyone is allowed to vote

(b) There are political parties to contest elections

(d) Elections are held at regular intervals

5. What is meant by the term ‘constituency’?

(a) Place where the copy of constitution is kept

(b) A particular area from where voters elect a representative to the Lok Sabha / Vidhan Sabha

(d) None of the above

6. Which of the options below is the demerit of the electoral competition?

(a) Creates a sense of factionalism (b) Parties use dirty tricks to win elections

7. In India, elections for which of these bodies are held after every five years?

(a) Rajya Sabha (b) Lok Sabha and Vidhan Sabha

8. Elections held after the term of 5 years of Lok Sabha are called-

(a) Mid-term elections (b) General elections

9.What is an election held for only one constituency to fill the vacancy caused due to the death or resignation of a member called?

(a) By-election (b) Mid-term election (c) General election (d) None of these

10. Into how many constituencies is the country divided for Lok Sabha elections?

(a) 544 (b) 543 (c) 560 (d) 535

11. Constituencies called ‘wards’ are made for the election to

(a) Parliament (b) State Legislative Assembly

12. How many seats are reserved in Lok Sabha for the Scheduled Tribes?

(a) 40 (b) 41 (c) 51 (d) 71

13. Which of these is not a part of the district and local level bodies?

(a) Panchayats (b) Municipalities (c) Corporations (d) Lok Sabha

14. Which of the options given below is applicable to the principle of Universal Adult Franchise?

(a) Only rich and educated can vote (b) Only men can vote

15. For voting, the voter has to show which of these as identity proof?

(a) Ration card (b) Driving license

16. What is the minimum age required to contest an election to Lok Sabha?

(a) 20 years (b) 18 years (c) 25 years (d) 30 years

17. What are the details the candidates have to give in the legal declaration before contesting the elections?

(a) Serious criminal cases pending against them

(b) Details of assets and liabilities of the candidate and his or her family

(d) All the above

18. What is a set of norms and guidelines, which is to be followed by political parties and contesting candidates during the election time, called?

(a) Discipline Roll (b) Code of Conduct (c) Conduct rules (d) Both (a) and (b)

19 Name the body which conducts the elections in India

(a) Supreme Court (b) Parliament (c) Cabinet (d) Election Commission

20. How is the Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) chosen?

(a) Appointed by the President (b) Elected by the people

21. When on election duty, under whose control does the government officers work?

(a) Central Government (b) Election Commission

22. In India, who votes in a larger proportion in the elections?

(a) Poor and illiterate (b) Rich and privileged (c) Educated people (d) Women

23. What does the term ‘incumbent’ mean?

(a) The current holder of a political office (b) The candidate contesting the election

24. An electoral malpractice in which a person assumes the identity of another for unlawful Purpose is

(a) Incumbent (b) Rigging (c) Impersonation (d) Turnact

25. The Election Commission is:

(a) An elected body (b) An appointed body

26. Which of the following is not allowed while carrying out election campaign?

(a) Giving money to voters to cast vote for candidates (b) Using TV channels

27. Which of the following statement is incorrect?

(a) All citizens above the age of 21 can vote in an election

(b) Every citizen has the right to vote regardless of caste religion or gender

d) It is the responsibility of the government to get the names of all eligible voters put in the voters list

28. ‘‘Save Democracy’’ slogan was given by which of the following political party in 1977 Lok Sabha elections?

(a) Congress Party (b) Janata Party (c) Telugu Desam Party (d) Left Front

29. What is the age of a person who can contest election for the Lok Sabha in India?

(a) 25 years (b) 30 years (c) 35 years (d) 40 years

30. In our country, elections are conducted by an independent and powerful body which is known as

(a) Election Commission (b) Parliament (c) Judiciary (d) Lok Sabha

31. Voter’s List is also known as:

(a) Election Number (b) Voter Identity Card (c) Electoral Roll (d) None of these

32. What is the tenure of the Lok Sabha?

(a) 9 years (b) 4 years (c) 5 years (d) 6 years

33. Which of the following statements is against the democratic process of elections?

(a) Parties and candidates should be free to contest elections

(b) Elections must be held regularly immediately after the term is over

(d) Elections should be conducted in a free and fair manner

34. Which state has the largest vidhan sabha in the country?

(a) Maharashtra (b) U.P. (Uttar Pradesh) (c) Andhra Pradesh (d) West Bengal

35. Reserved Constituencies ensures

(a) Right to equality (b) Proper representation to all religious groups

36.Which of the following has the largest Lok Sabha constituency in India?

(a) Maharashtra (b) U.P. (c) Himachal Pradesh (d) Bihar

37. Who has given the slogan ‘Garibi Hatao’?

(a) Indira Gandhi (b) Rajiv Gandhi (c) Sonia Gandhi (d) Pt. Nehru

38. The number of Lok Sabha constituencies at present is

(a) 541 (b) 546 (c) 543 (d) 540

DATE: DAY:

4. WORKING OF INSTITUTIONS

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. When was the Second Backward Class Commission appointed?

(a) 1989 (b) 1979

2. What is meant by ‘Office Memorandum’?

(a) Order issued by the Government of India (b) Memoirs of the leaders of the past

3. What do the Civil Servants do?

(a) They take important policy decisions (b) They implement the ministers’ decisions

4. Why did people react strongly to the Mandal Commission Report?

(a) It left out many backward communities (b) It affected thousands of job opportunities

5. What is ‘Parliament’?

(a) Assembly of elected representatives at the national level

(b) A body consisting of appointed ministers

(d) Assembly of only appointed members

6. Which of these is correct so far as powers of the Parliament are concerned, apart from making laws?

(a) Exercising control over the government

(b) Controlling finance of the country

(d) All the above

7. Apart from Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha, who else constitutes the Parliament?

(a) Prime Minister (b) Chief Minister (c) Governor (d) President

8. What happens if there is a difference of opinion between Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha over an ordinary bill?

(a) The President decides the matter (b) The will of Rajya Sabha prevails

9. For how long can the Rajya Sabha delay a Money Bill?

(a) 15 days (b) 1 month (c) 3 months (d) 14 days

10. Which of these disputes can the Supreme Court take?

(a) Between citizens of the country (b) Between citizens and the government

11. Who appoints the judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts?

(a) President, according to his own wishes

(b) President, on the advice of the PM

(d) None of the above

12. Who is the presiding officer of the Lok Sabha?

(a) Speaker (b) Vice President (c) President (d) Prime Minister

13. Two features of Indian judicial system are:

(a) Independent Judiciary (b) Integrated Judiciary

14. How can a judge of the Supreme Court be removed?

(a) By the Supreme Court itself (b) By the Parliament through impeachment

15. Which of the following institutions can make changes to the existing law of the country?

(a) The Supreme Court (b) The President

16. What does the Supreme Court say over the Parliament’s power of amendment of the Constitution?

(a) Parliament can amend the entire Constitution

(b) Parliament can amend only the basic structure of the Constitution

(d) None of the above

17. Which body acts as the guardian of Fundamental Rights?

(a) District Courts (b) Supreme Court (c) Election Commission (d) Legislature

18. What is a Public Interest Litigation?

(a) Filing a case in the court in the interest of the public

(b) Reviewing of Supreme Court judgements

(d) None of the above

19. Why does the political executive have more powers than the permanent executive?

(a) Because hardly any expertise is required in taking policy decisions

(b) Because political executive consists of the direct representatives of the people

(d) None of the above

20. Who holds the most important and powerful position in the government?

(a) President (b) Vice President (c) Prime Minister (d) Speaker

21.Whom does the President appoint as the Prime Minister?

(a) Anyone he likes (b) Leader of the majority party

22. What is the tenure of office of the Prime Minister?

(a) 5 years (b) 6 years

23. What is the government formed by an alliance of two or more political parties called?

(a) Cooperation government (b) Coalition government

24. Which organ of the government has the power to interpret the Constitution?

(a) Supreme Court (b) District Court (c) High Court (d) Both (a) and (c)

25. Which of these options is/are correct regarding the powers of the Prime Minister?

(a) He chairs the Cabinet meetings (b) He distributes work to the different departments

26. What is the position of the President?

(a) Nominal head of the state (b) Real head of the state

27. Which of the following statements is not true?

(a) The Judiciary safeguards the laws (b) The Legislature implements the laws

(d) The permanent executives comprises the civil servants

28. The Council of Ministers at the centre is responsible to

(a) The President (b) the Prime Minister (c) The Rajya Sabha (d) the Lok Sabha

29. The president of India is elected by

(a) Direct Election by citizens ... 18 years of age

(b) Indirect Election by the Electoral College

(d) None of the above

30. President of India is

(a) Head of the Government (b) Head of the State

31.The judges of Supreme Court are appointed by

(a) President (b) Prime Minister

DATE: DAY:

5. DEMOCRATIC RIGHTS

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. What was the reason given by America for imprisoning people at Guantanamo Bay?

(a) They had been caught spying.

(b) They were planning to kill the US President.

(d) America considered them as enemies and linked them to the attack on New York on 11th September, 2001.

2. Which body exposed to the world that prisoners at Guantanamo Bay were being tortured in ways that violated the US laws?

(A) United Nations (b) International Court of Justice

3. Which of these options is not correct regarding Saudi Arabian political system?

(a) The king selects the executive, legislature and judiciary

(b) Citizens cannot form political parties

(d) none of the above

4. What is the position of women in Saudi Arabia?

(a) Women are given all the rights

(b) Women are given equal status with men

(d) They are offered high positions

5. What was Milosevic’s attitude towards the Albanians?

(a) His government was hostile to the Kosovo Albanians

(b) He wanted to bring equality between Serbs and Albanians

(d) Both (a) and (c)

6. How was the massacre of Albanians finally stopped?

(a) The UN ordered for Milosevic’s arrest

(b) Several countries intervened to stop the massacre

(d) Milosevic reformed himself

7. What is meant by ‘rights’?

(a) One’s demand to get everything without sharing with others

(b) Claims of a person over other fellow beings, society and the government

(d) none of the above

8. Which of these statements about the relationship between democracy and rights is more valid?

(a) Every country that is a democracy gives rights to its citizens

(b) Every country that gives rights to its citizens is a democracy

(d) All the above

9. Under which Fundamental Right has the Parliament enacted a law giving the Right to Information to the citizens?

(a) Right to freedom of religion (b) Right to freedom of thought and expression

10. Which of these is/are the new rights guaranteed by the constitution of South Africa for its citizens?

(a) Right to privacy

(b) Right to an environment that is not harmful to the people’s health

(d) All the above

11. The right to seek the enforcement of all Fundamental Rights is called:

(a) Right against Exploitation (b) Right to Freedom

12. If our Fundamental Rights are violated, where can we seek the remedy?

(a) Supreme Court or High Courts (b) Parliament

13. What did Dr. Ambedkar refer to the ‘Right to Constitutional Remedies’ as?

(a) The brain of our Constitution (b) The heart and soul of our Constitution

14. What is meant by the term ‘writ’?

(a) Written law (b) A formal document containing an order of the court to the government

15. When was the NHRC set up?

(a) 1998 (b) 1996

16. How many Fundamental Rights does the Indian constitution provide?

(a) 7 (b) 6

17. Which of the following terms is correct for the feature of the Indian constitution stating that no person is above the law?

(a) State of law (b) Application of law

18. What does ‘Right to Equality’ say about the public jobs?

(a) Jobs will be provided to all by the government

(b) Jobs will be reserved for the more meritorious students

(d) None of the above

19. What does the Constitution say about the practice of untouchability?

(a) It stands abolished

(b) Its practice in any form is punishable by law

(d) Both (a) and (b)

20. Which of these is false regarding the Freedom of Speech and Expression?

(a) Everyone has a right to think differently

(b) One may disagree with a policy of the government

(d) One is free to criticise the government

21. Which of these rights is/are provided to a person arrested by the government or police?

(a) To be informed of the reasons of his arrest

(b) To be produced before a magistrate within 24 hrs of his arrest

(d) All the above

22. One of the forms of exploitation as mentioned in the constitution is ‘traffic’. What does it mean?

(a) Transport system (b) Buying and selling of human beings

23. What is meant by ‘begar’?

(a) Practice of begging

(b) Practice of forcing workers to work without any wages

(d) Both (b) and (c)

24. Laws have been made to prohibit children from working in which of these industries?

(a) Beedi making (b) Fire crackers and matches

25. Which of the following freedom is not available to an Indian citizen?

(a) Freedom to start a movement to change the government

(b) Freedom to oppose the government

(d) None of these

26. Which among the following cannot be challenged in a court?

(a) Directive principles of state policy

(b) Fundamental Rights

(d) Right to move freely to any part of the country.

27. Cultural and Educational Rights are safeguarded mainly for:

(a) Women (b) minorities

28. Which of the following is not a Fundamental Right?

(a) Right to Freedom (b) Right to Vote

29. Which of the following rights is not available under the fundamental rights?

(a) Right to Equality (b) Right to Freedom

(b) Right to protect one’s culture (d) Right to property.

30. India is a secular state. What does the word ‘secular’ mean?

(a) The state gives protection to the Hindu religion

(b) The state allows only the majority to propagate their religion

(d) none of the above.

31. Civil Rights are given to the individual by:

(a) Nature (b) God

32. The Indian Constitution prescribes Fundamental Rights in:

(a) Part III (b) part VII

33. Who called the right to constitutional remedies as the heart and soul of the constitution?

(a) J.L. Nehru (b) B. R. Ambedkar

34. The National Human Right Commission is an independent commission, set up by the law in the year:

(a) 1993 (b) 1995

35. Which of these is not a freedom available under the ‘Right to Freedom’ in India?

(a) Freedom of speech and expression

(b) Freedom to incite people to rebel against the government

(d) Freedom to form associations and unions

36. Which among the following is correct regarding PIL?

(a) Public Interest Legislature (b) Public Interest Litigation

37. Which of the following freedoms is not available to an Indian citizen?

(a) Freedom to criticise the government

(b) Freedom to participate in armed rebellion

(d) All the above

38. Which of these is not allowed under the Culture and Educational Right in India?

(a) Every cultural group has the right to protect its language and culture.

(b) Admissions can be denied on the basis of religion and culture in government aided

educational organisations set up by cultural groups.

(d) None of these

39. Which one of the following is not a Political Right?

(a) Right to contest election (b) Right to vote

40. If anyone violates our Fundamental Rights we can directly approach the:

(a) Prime Minister (b) Supreme Court

GEOGRAPHY

DATE: DAY:

1. INDIA – SIZE AND LOCATION

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. Indian Standard Time or I.S.T. is how many hours ahead or behind of G.M.T. or Universal Time?

(a) 5 hrs 30 min behind G.M.T. (b) 15 hrs ahead of G.M.T.

2. Which of the following has reduced India’s distance from Europe by 7000 km?

(a) Suez Canal (b) Panama Canal (c) Indira Gandhi Canal (d) Buckingham Canal

3. Which of the following influences the duration of the day and night, as one moves from south to north?

(a) Longitudinal extent (b) Latitudinal extent (c) Standard Meridian (d) All the above

4. The Standard Meridian of India, 82°30′E passes through which of the following places?

(a) Kanniyakumari in Tamil Nadu (b) Walong in Arunachal Pradesh

5. The sun rises two hours earlier in Arunachal Pradesh as compared to Gujarat. What time will the watch show in Gujarat if it is 6 am in Arunachal Pradesh?

(a) 4.16 am (b) 7.44 am (c) 6 am (d) 5.44 am

6. If the local time at Dwarka (69°01′E) in Gujarat to the west of India is 6 am, what will be the local time at Dibrugarh (94°58′E approximately 95°), in Assam, in the east?

(a) 4.16 am (b) 6 am (c) 7.44 am (d) 7.44 pm

7. From Arunachal Pradesh to Gujarat there is a time lag of:

(a) 24 hours (b) 12 hours (c) 2 hours (d) 30 minutes

8. Both the latitudinal and longitudinal extent of India’s mainland is about 30°. But on looking at the map of India which of the following alternatives do you observe about India’s size?

(a) East-west extent appears to be smaller than north-south extent

(b) East-west extent appears to be larger than north-south extent

(d) North-south extent appears to be smaller than east-west extent

9. Approximately what is the latitudinal and longitudinal extent of the mainland of India?

(a) 97° (b) 68° (c) 30° (d) 8°

10. Which geographical feature bounds India’s mainland south of 22°N latitude?

(a) Young Fold Mountains (b) Sandy Desert

11. By which geographical feature is India bounded in the north-west, north and north-east?

(a) Seas (b) Lave Plateaus (c) Young Fold Mountains (d) Sandy Desert

12. What is India’s size with respect to other countries of the world?

(a) First (b) Third (c) Fourth (d) Seventh

13. Which of the following figures shows the total area of India’s landmass?

(a) 2.4 million square km (b) 3.28 million square km

14. Which of the following groups of islands belonging to the Indian territory lies in the Arabian Sea?

(a) Andaman and Nicobar Islands (b) Sri Lanka (c) Lakshadweep (d) Maldives

15. Which of the following groups of islands belonging to the Indian Territory lies in the Bay of Bengal?

(a) Andaman and Nicobar Islands (b) Sri Lanka (c) Lakshadweep (d) Maldives

16. Which latitude passes through the southern-most point of India’s mainland?

(a) 8°4′N (b) 37°6′N (c) 8°4′S (d) 82°30′E

17. Which of the following is the western-most longitude of India?

(a) 97°25′E (b) 68°7′E (c) 68°7′E (d) 82°32′E

18. The eastern-most longitude of India is

(a) 97°25′E (b) 68°7′E (c) 77°6′E (d) 82°32′E

19. Which of the following parallels of latitude divides India into two almost equal parts?

(a) Equator (b) Tropic of Capricorn (c) Tropic of Cancer (d) Prime Meridian

20. Which of the following is the longitudinal extent of India?

(a) 8°4′N and 37°6′N (b) 68°7′N and 97°25′E

21. Which of the following places of India is located on the three seas?

(a) Port Blair (b) Kavaratti (c) Kanniyakumari (d) Kochi

22. India achieved multi-faceted socio-economic progress during which of the following periods?

(a) Since ancient times (b) During medieval period

23. Which of the following Union Territories is located along the west coast of India?

(a) Andaman and Nicobar Islands (b) Chandigarh

24. How many states and Union Territories are there in India?

(a) 28 states and 7 Union Territories including Delhi (b) 23 States and 12 Union Territories

25. Which of the following ports of India is closest to the Suez Canal route?

(a) Kolkata (b) Chennai (c) Kochi (d) Mumbai

26. Which of the following is the oldest route of contact between India and other countries of the world?

(a) Ocean routes (b) Maritime contact (c) Land routes (d) Air routes

27. Due to which of the following reasons is the Indian Ocean named after India?

(a) India has a strategic location along the trans-Indian Ocean routes

(b) No other country has a long coastline on the Indian Ocean as India

(d) All the above

28. Which of the following longitudes is selected as the Standard Meridian for India?

(a) 68°7′E (b) 82°30′E (c) 97°25′E (d) 23°30′N

29. In which of the following places, would you find the least difference in the duration between day time and night time?

(a) Kanniyakumari (b) Leh (c) Srinagar (d) Itanagar

30. Tropic of Cancer passes through which of these states

(a) Orissa (b) Tripura (c) Bihar (d) Punjab

31. Which one of the following is the southern-most Latitude of India?

(a) 8° 4′ North (b) 8° 4′ South (c) 6° 4′ South (d) 6° 4′ North

32. The latitudinal extent of India lies between

(a) 7° 5′ N and 26° 5′ N (b) 8° 4′ N and 37° 6′ N

33. The Tropic of Cancer does not pass through

(a) Rajasthan (b) Tripura (c) Jharkhand (d) Bihar

34. Which meridian is fixed as a Standard Meridian of India?

(a) 82½° E (b) 84½° E (c) 86° E (d) 81° E

35. The easternmost longitude of India is :

(a) 97° 25′ E (b) 77° 6′ E (c) 68° 7′ E (d) 82° 32′ E

36. What is the position of India in the world in respect of area?

(a) 8th position (b) 7th position (c) 6th position (d) 2nd position

37. Which one of the following forms the southern-most tip of the Indian mainland?

(a) Indira Point (b) Kanniyakumari (c) Palk Strait (d) Kavaratti

38. Which line divides India into approximately two equal parts?

(a) Equator (b) Tropic of Cancer (c) Tropic of Capricorn (d) None of these

39. Which country among the India’s neighbours is the smallest?

(a) Nepal (b) Bhutan (c) Sri Lanka (d) Bangladesh

40. How many states and Union Territories does India have?

(a) India has 26 States and 7 Union Territories

(b) India has 25 States and 7 Union Territories

(d) India has 28 States and 6 Union Territories

DATE: DAY:

2. PHYSICAL FEATURES OF INDIA

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. Which of the following is responsible for the variation in the colour of soil in different parts of India?

(a) Difference in rock formations (b) Weathering

2. Which of the following has not been a factor in the creation and modification of India’s relief features?

(a) Geological formations (b) Population density

3. Which of the following is a plausible theory presented by Earth scientists to explain the formation of continents and oceans and the various landforms?

(a) Theory of Motion (b) Theory of Plate Tectonics

4. According to the ‘Theory of Plate Tectonics,’ the earth’s crust is formed of how many major plates?

(a)Three (b) Five (c) Seven (d) Ten

5. According to the ‘Theory of Plate Tectonics,’ the movement of the plates result in some geological activity. Which one of the following is not such a geological activity?

(a) Volcanic activity (b) Folding (c) Faulting (d) Glaciation

6. According to the ‘Theory of Plate Tectonics,’ when some plates come towards each other, which of the following is formed?

(a) Convergent boundary (b) Divergent boundary

7. According to the ‘Theory of Plate Tectonics,’ when some plates move away from each other, which of the following is formed?

(a) Convergent boundary (b) Divergent boundary

8. According to the ‘Theory of Plate Tectonics,’ in the event of two plates coming together, which of the following is not possible?

(a) The plates may collide and crumble.

(b) The plates may move horizontally past each other.

(d) One plate may slide under the other.

9. According to the ‘Theory of Plate Tectonics,’ what have been the effects of the movement of the plates?

(a) Change in position and size of continents.

(b) Formation of ocean basins.

(d) All of the above.

10. A landmass bounded by sea on three sides is referred to as

(a) Coast (b) Island (c) Peninsula (d) None of the above

11. Which of the following divisions of India has the oldest landmass?

(a) The Himalayas (b) The Northern Plains

12. The Peninsular Plateau of India is part of which of the following landmass?

(a) Angaraland (b) Gondwanaland (c) Tethys (d) Eurasian Plate

13. Which of the following countries or continents was not a part of the ancient landmass of Gondwanaland?

(a) India (b) Australia (c) Europe (d) South America

14. The northward drift of the Indo-Australian plate resulted in its collision with the much larger

Eurasian plate. Which of the following was the result of this collision?

(a) The Gondwanaland split into a number of plates.

(b) The continents of Europe and Asia were formed.

(d) India and Australia were formed.

15. Which of the following physiographic divisions of India was formed out of accumulations in the Tethys geosyncline?

(a) The Himalayas (b) The Northern Plains (c) The Peninsular Plateau (d) The Indian Desert

16. The Himalayan uplift out of the Tethys Sea and subsidence of the northern flank of the peninsular plateau resulted in the formation of a large basin. Which of the following physical divisions of India was formed due to filling up of this depression?

(a) The Himalayas (b) The Northern Plains

17. Geologically, which of the following physiographic divisions of India is supposed to be one of the most stable land blocks?

(a) The Himalayas (b) The Northern Plains

18. From the point of view of geology, which of the following physiographic divisions of India is considered to be an unstable zone?

(a) The Himalayan Mountains (b) The Peninsular Plateau

19. Which of the following are young-fold mountains?

(a) The Aravalis (b) The Nilgiris (c) The Himalayas (d) The Sahyadri

20. Which of the following physical features forms a natural barrier to the north of India?

(a) Kunlun Mountains (b) Plateau of Tibet (c) River Brahamaputra (d) The Himalayas

21. The Himalayas consist of three parallel ranges in its longitudinal extent. Which of the following is the name of the northern-most range?

(a) The Himadri (b) The Himachal (c) The Shivaliks (d) The Purvanchal

22. Which part of the Himalayas is perennially snowbound?

(a) Great Himalayas or Himadri (b) Lesser Himalayas or Himachal

23. Which of the following is the highest peak in India?

(a) Mt. Everest (b) Kanchenjunga (c) Nanga Parbat (d) Nandadevi

24. Which of the following is not a mountain pass in the Great Himalayas?

(a) Bara Lapcha La and Shipkila (b) Nathula

25. What are Lesser Himalayas known as?

(a)Himadri (b) Himachal (c) Shivaliks (d) Purvanchal

26. Which of the following ranges are not part of the Lesser Himalayas or Himachal?

(a) Pir Panjal (b) Dhaula Dhar (c) Mahabharat (d) Kamet

27. In which division of the Himalayas are the famous valleys of Kashmir, Kangra and Kullu located?

(a) The Himadri (b) The Himachal (c) The Shivaliks (d) The Duns

28. Which of the following ranges of the Himalayas are composed of unconsolidated sediments brought down by rivers?

(a) The Pir Panjal range (b) The Karakoram range

29. The longitudinal valleys lying between lesser Himalayas and Shivaliks are known as .

(a) Kangra Valley (b) Patkai Bum (c) Passes (d) Duns

30. From west to east, the divisions of the Himalayas are demarcated by river valleys. The part of the Himalayas lying between the Satluj and Kali rivers is known as .

(a) Punjab Himalayas (b) Kumaon Himalayas

31. Which two hills are located in the south-east of Eastern Ghats ?

(a) Mizo Hills and Naga Hills (b) Javadi Hills and Shevroy Hills

32. Which islands of India are called Coral Islands?

(a) Lakshadweep (b) Andaman and Nicobar (c) both (d) None of these

33. A narrow gap in a mountain range providing access to the other side is:

(a) Mound (b) Pass (c) Strait (d) Valley

DATE: DAY:

3. DRAINAGE

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. Which of the following is the result of concern over rising pollution in our rivers?

(a) Banning hydroelectric projects (b) Various river action plans

2. Which of the following affects the self-cleansing capacity of the river?

(a) Aquatic organisms (b) Drawing of water for irrigation

3. Which of the following is not one of the causes of river pollution?

(a) Dumping of garbage (b) Aquatic organisms and algae

4. Which one of the following cities of India is not located on a riverbank?

(a) Haridwar (b) Allahabad (c) Shillong (d) Varanasi

5. Lakes are of great value to human beings. Which of the following statements about lakes given below is incorrect?

(a) Helps to regulate the flow of rivers (b) It results in flooding

6. Why have the river banks attracted settlers from ancient times?

(a) Water is a basic natural resource (b) Rivers provide water for irrigation

7. Which of the following states are Nainital and Bhimtal located?

(a) Jammu and Kashmir (b) Himachal Pradesh (c) Uttar Pradesh (d) Uttarakhand

8. Which of the following is an artificial lake located in Andhra Pradesh?

(a) Kolleru (b) Nagarjuna Sagar (c) Krishnaraja Sagar (d) Vembanad

9. Which one of the following is not a lake created by human beings?

(a) Gobind Sagar (b) Nizam Sagar (c) Barapani (d) Hirakud

10. Which one of the following freshwater lakes is the largest?

(a) Wular (b) Loktak (c) Nainital (d)Dal

11. Which of the following lakes is formed as a result of tectonic activity?

(a) Wular Lake (b) Kolleru Lake (c) Loktak Lake (d) Dal Lake

12. Which of the following lake is a lagoon in the coastal region of Orissa?

(a) Bhimtal (b) Barapani (c) Chilika (d) Hirakud

13. Which one of the following lakes is a saltwater lake?

(a) Wular Lake (b) Sambhar Lake (c) Barapani Lake (d) Dal Lake

14. Which of the following types of lakes is formed due to river action?

(a) Saltwater lakes (b) Glacial lakes (c) Oxbow lakes (d) Lagoons

15. Which type of lakes contain water only during the rainy season?

(a) Oxbow lakes (b) Lagoons

16. Which of the following is a famous lake of Srinagar in Kashmir?

(a) Sambhar (b) Bhimtal (c) Chilika (d) Dal

17. Which of the following rivers originates from the Hazaribagh plateau of Chotta Nagpur region and flows eastwards?

(a) Amravati (b) Bhima (c) Ghatprabha (d) Damodar

18. Which of the following waterfalls is made by the river Kaveri and is the second biggest waterfall in India?

(a) Jog (b) Sivasamudram (c) Dhuadhar (d) Hundru

19. The drainage basin of which of the following rivers covers parts of Karnataka, Kerala and Tamil Nadu?

(a) Godavari (b) Krishna (c) Kaveri (d) Musi

20. The Amaravati, Bhavani, Hemavati and Kabini are the tributaries of which of the following rivers?

(a)Wainganga (b) Bhima (c) Krishna (d) Kaveri

21. Which of the following rivers rises from the slopes of the Western Ghats in the Nasik district of Maharashtra?

(a) Mahanadi (b) Narmada (c) Godavari (d) Koyna

22. Which of the following states is not drained by the Godavari river?

(a) Maharashtra (b) Orissa (c) Andhra Pradesh (d) Chhattisgarh

23. Which of the following rivers is not a tributary of river Godavari?

(a) Purna (b) Ghatprabha (c) ardha (d) Pranhita

24. Which of the following rivers is known as the ‘Dakshin Ganga’?

(a) The Godavari (b) The Narmada (c) The Krishna (d) The Kaveri

25. TheWainganga and the Penganga are tributaries of which of the following rivers?

(a) The Mahanadi (b) The Narmada (c) The Godavari (d) The Krishna

DATE: DAY:

4. CLIMATE

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. What generally happens to air temperature as we move from the equator to the poles?
(a) it decreases (b) it increases

2. Monsoon arrives in India approximately in:
(a) Early May (b) Early June (c) Early July (d) Early August

3. Which one of the following warm ocean currents replaces the Peruvian cold currents?
(a) Kuroshio (b) El Nino (c) South Pacific Currents (d) Gulf Stream

4. Which is the coldest place in India?
(a) Dras (b) Srinagar (c) Shimla (d) Jaipur

5. Which of the following states suffer from loo?
(a) Tamil Nadu (b) Uttar Pradesh (c) Gujarat (d) None of these

6. What is the full form of ITCZ
(a) International Tropical Convergence Zone
(b) Interstate Tropical Convergence Zone
(c) International Tropical Convergent Zone
(d) Inter Tropical Convergence Zone

7. The amount of....................... present in the atmosphere is called Humidity
(a) Smog (b) Dust (c) Pollution (d) Water Vapours

8. Which one of the following characterises the cold weather season in India?
(a) Warm days and warm nights (b) Warm days and cold nights
(c) Cool days and cold nights (d) Cold days and warm nights

9. Which of the crop is associated with the winter rainfall?
(a) Zaid (b) Rabi (c) Kharif (d) None of these

10. Mawsynram ................ place on the earth is also famous for its stalagmites and stalactite caves.
(a) Coldest (b) Hottest (c) Wettest (d) Driest

11. The term monsoon originates from
(a) German (b) Hindi (c) Latin (d) Arabic

12. Which of the following forces is responsible for the deflection of winds from its normal path?
(a) Centripetal Force (b) Coriolis Force

13. Mango showers helps in ripening of
(a) Apples (b) Mangoes (c) Bananas (d) Coconut

14. Which one of the following causes rainfall during winters in north-western part of India?
(a) Cyclonic depression (b) Western disturbances
(c) Retreating monsoon (d) Southwest monsoon

15. Mawsynram is located in which of the hills?
(a) Garo Hills (b) Jainita Hills (c) Khasi Hills (d) Shillong Hills

16. Which of the following areas is not an area of low precipitation?
(a) Western parts of Gujarat (b) Leh in Jammu & Kashmir
(c) Deccan Plateau (d) Assam

17. Fast flowing and narrow air currents are called
(a) Monsoon (b) Cyclone (c) Jet Streams (d) Anticyclone

18. Wind generally blow from areas of
(a) Low Pressure to High Pressure (b) High Pressure to Low Pressure
(c) Low Pressure to Moderate Pressure (d) None of these

19. How many seasons do we have in India?
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5

20. In which latitude of tropical areas are monsoon experienced?
(a) 20^oN and 20^oE (b) 20^oN and 20^oS (c) 20^oN and 20^oW (d) 20^oE and 20^oW

21. Which one of the following is an element of weather?
(a) Climate (b) Temperature (c) Humidity (d) Both (b) & (c)

22. Which imaginary line passes through the centre of our country?
(a) Equator (b) Tropic of Capricorn

c) Tropic of Cancer (d) None of these

23. The state of the atmosphere over an area at any point of time is called
(a) Temperature (b) Climate (c) Weather (d) Air Pressure

24. Which of the following control is not affecting the climate of India?
(a) Altitude (b) Cyclones (c) Latitude (d) Pressure & Winds

25. The seasonal reversal in wind direction during a year is called
(a) Monsoon (b) Cyclone (c) Jet Streams (d) Anticyclone

DATE: DAY:

5. NATURAL VEGETATION AND WILDLIFE

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. India belongs to which of the following categories according to natural vegetation and wildlife?
a. A country lacking in biodiversity cover
b. One of the twelve mega biodiversity countries of the world
c. The country with the greatest forest cover
d. None of these

2. Which is not included in the group of non-flowering plants?
a. Orchids b. Algae c. Fungi d. None of these

3. Which type of vegetation does not belong to the category of natural vegetation?
a. Horticulture b. Forests c. Mangroves d. All of these

4. Which term is used for the original plant cover of an area which has grown naturally?
a. Garden b. Agriculture c. Virgin Vegetation d. Indigenous species

5. What is the position of India in the world with regard to plant diversity?
a. First b. Tenth c. Twelfth d. None of these

6. Which term is used for virgin vegetation, which have come from outside India are termed as exotic plants.
a. Indigenous plants b. Endemic species c. Exotic Plants d. None of these

7. Which term is used for virgin vegetation which is purely Indian in origin?
a. Normal species b. Endemic species c. Exotic species d. None of these

8. Which term is used to denote animal species of a particular region or period?
a. Fauna b. Ferns c. Flora d. None of these

9. Which type of vegetation is common in fertile, level lands?
a. Forests b. Cultivated crops c. Grasslands d. None of these

10. The yak, shaggy-horned wild ox and the Tibetan antelope are found in which one of the following regions?
(a) Tibet (b) Uttarakhand (c) Himachal Pradesh (d) Ladakh

11. Which term is used to denote plants of a particular region or period?
a. Flora b. Fauna c. Ferns d. All of these

12. Which type of vegetation usually develops on undulating and rough terrains?
a. Mangroves b. Grasslands and woodlands
c. Cactus and thorny bushed d. None of these

13. Which type of vegetation grows in wet, marshy soil?
a. Cactus b. Alpine vegetation c. Mangroves d. None of these

14. The character and extent of vegetation are mainly determined by which of the climatic factor?
a. Temperature b. Humidity c. Precipitation d. All the above

15. Which factor influence the type and distribution of natural vegetation?
a. Landform b. Soil c. Climate d. All the above

16. Which type of vegetation grows in the sandy soil of the desert?
a. Coniferous trees b. Grasslands

c. Cactus and thorny bushes d. None of these

17. Which type of vegetation grows in areas with mean annual average temperature of above 24°C?
a. Tropical b. Subtropical c. Temperate d. None of these

18. Which type of vegetation zone is found in the higher reaches of the Himalayas?
a. Tropical b. Alpine c. Temperate d. None of these

19. Forest is which type of resource?
a. Renewable resources b. Exhaustible resources
c. Non-renewable resources d. None of these

20. How do forests influences the climate of a place?
a. Modify local climate b. Control wind force and temperature
c. Cause rainfall d. All the above

DATE: DAY:

6. POPULATION

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. What is the population density of India?
a. 689 persons per sq. km b. 324 persons per sq. km
c. 528 persons per sq. km d. 765 persons per sq. km

2. Who is resource creating factors as well as resources themselves?
a. Animals b. Human beings c. Plants d. All of these

3. Name the state having the highest percentage of literacy level:
(a) Kerala (b) Maharashtra (c) Punjab (d) West Bengal

4. Which one of the following state has very high population density in India?
a. West Bengal b. Madhya Pradesh c. Rajasthan d. All of these

5. Which one of the following southern state has a high population density?
a. Tamil Nadu b. Punjab c. Kerala d. None of these

6. Which one of the following state has a population density below 100 persons per square kilometre?
a. Jammu and Kashmir b. Uttarakhand c. Nagaland d. All of these

7. Which term is referred as the change in the number of inhabitants of a country during a specific period of time?
a. Density of population b. Population growth

c. Age composition d. None of these

8. What do you mean by the magnitude of population growth?
a. The total population of an area b. The number of females per thousand males
c. The number of persons added each year d. None of these

9. Which movement of the people across regions and territories does not change the size of the population?
a. Internal b. External c. Birth rate d. None of these

10. Which one of the following state of India has very low population density?
a. Arunachal Pradesh b. Sikkim c. Orissa d. All of these

11. What is the rank of India among the population of the world?
a. Third b. Seventh c. Second d. None of these

12. What is the main cause for the high growth of our population?
a. Rise in death rate b. Decline of death rate
c. Decline of birth rate d. None of these

13. What do you mean by sex ratio?
a. Number of females per thousand males b. Number of females per hundred males
c. Number of females per ten males d. Number of females per lakh males

14. A large proportion of children in a population is a result of:
a. High death rate b. High married rate c. High birth rate d. None of these

15. Which of the following is an important social indicator to measure the extent of equality between males and females in a society at a given time?
a. Age Composition b. Literacy Rate c. Sex Ratio d. Death Rate

16. Which one of the following state in India has a population density below 250 persons per square km?
a. Punjab b. Haryana c. Chhattisgarh d. None of these

17. What is referred as the rate or pace of population increase per year?
a. Annual growth rate b. Population change

c. Absolute Increase d. None of these

18. What is the average sex ratio of India as per 2001 census?
a. 956 b. 973 c. 933 d. 945

19. What is referred as the number of people in different age groups?
a. Adolescent population b. Age composition
c. Sex ratio d. All of these

20. In how many years is the official enumeration of population carried out for census?
a. 5 years b. 16 years c. 2 years d. 10 years

ECONOMICS

DATE: DAY:

1. THE STORY OF VILLAGE PALAMPUR

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. Which of the following is grown in the rainy season?

(a) Jowar and bajra (b) Wheat (c) Soyabean (d) Rice

2. Which of the following is a Rabi crop?

(a) Wheat b) Rice (c) Cotton (d) Jowar and bajra

3. Which of the following is fixed capital?

(a) Tools and machines (b) Fertilisers and pesticides (c) Soil (d) Seeds

4. Which of the following is a standard unit of measurement of land?

(a) Bigha (b) Hectare (c) Acre (d) Guintha

5. The minimum wages for a farm labourer set by the government is

(a) Rs. 50 (b) Rs. 60 (c) Rs. 70 (d) Rs. 80

6. Money in hand is an example of

(a) Human capital (b) Fixed capital (c) Working capital (d) Physical capital

7. HYV seeds stands for

(a) Heavy yielding variety seeds (b) High yielding variety seeds

8. What is the main production activity in Palampur village?

(a) Farming (b) Animal husbandry

9. Multiple cropping means growing

(a) only two crops (b) only three crops

10. Land under cultivation (in million hectares) in India in the year 2000 was

(a) 120 (b) 130 (c) 140 (d) 150

11. Which area in India has a low level of irrigation?

(a) Deccan plateau (b) Coastal regions (c) Riverine plains (d) Both (a) and (b)

12. Modern farming methods were tried in India for the first time in

(a) Punjab (b) Western U.P. (c) Haryana (d) All the above

13. Which of the following is a modern farming method?

(a) Multiple cropping (b) Use of HYV seeds

14. Production of pulses (in million tonnes) in India during 2000-01 was

(a) 10 (b) 11 (c) 14 (d) 12

15. Which one is a natural resource?

(a) Labour (b) Raw materials (c) Mineral (d) None of the above

16. High yielding variety seeds (HYV) were introduced to Indian farmers as a result of

(a) White Revolution (b) Green Revolution (c) IT Revolution (d) None of the above

17. Which Kharif crop is used for cattle feed?

(a) Sugarcane (b) Potato (c) Jowar and bajra (d) Wheat

18. The activities such as small manufacturing, transport, shop keeping are referred to as

(a) Non-economic activities (b) Non-farming activities

19. High Yielding Variety (HYV) seeds are developed in

(a) Research institutes (b) Factories

20. The concept of White Revolution is associated with

(a) food crops (b) milk (c)cotton (d) pesticides

21. Who is a person who puts together land, labour and capital?

(a) Moneylender (b) Entrepreneur (c) Zamindar (d) Manager

22. A farmer who works on a piece of 1 hectare of land is treated as

(a) Medium farmer (b) small farmer (c) large farmer (d) none of the above

23. Scope of farming activity is limited in Palampur due to

(a) Fixed amount of land (b) lack of irrigation (c) lack of labour (d) none of the above

24. What is done to surplus wheat in Palampur?

(a) Sold in the market (b) Destroyed

25. Consumption of chemical fertilisers is highest in which state of India?

(a) Punjab (b) Haryana (c) Rajasthan (d) Himachal Pradesh

26. People of Palampur sell milk in the nearby large village named:

(a) Pitampura (b) Siliguri (c) Shahpur (d) Raiganj

27. Out of the total cultivated areas in the country, how much area is irrigated today?

(a) less than 40% (b) less than 30% (c) less than 60% (d) less than 70%

28. 'Operation Flood' is related to

(a) control flood (b) produce fish (c) milk production (d) grain production

29. Green Revolution is related to

(a) Milk Production (b) Grain production (c) Fish production (d) none of these

30. Where do most of the small farmers borrow money to arrange for the capital in Palampur?

(a) Banks (b) Co-operative Societies

31. Which one among the following is not fixed capital?

(a) Machines (b) Buildings (c) Tools (d) Raw materials

32. Why do the farmers of Palampur follow multiple cropping? Choose the correct answer.

(a) Because the water consumption is less in this method

(b) Because this method consumes less chemical fertilisers

(d) Because this method is the most common way of increasing production

33. Which of the following transformed the system of irrigation in Palampur?

(a) Tubewells (b) Persian wheel

34. How many families live in Village Palampur?

(a) 150 (b) 250 (c) 350 (d) 450

35. Which one among the following is a non-farm activity?

(a) Multiple cropping (b) Crop rotation (c) Dairy farming (d) Modern farming

36. Which one of the following is not an effect of the modern farming?

(a) Soil degradation (b) Deforestation

37. Marginal farmers are those

(a) who use modern methods for farming

(b) who practice crop rotation for farming

(d) who use modern methods of irrigation

38. Working capital stands for

(a) Tools, machines and buildings (b) raw materials and money in hand

39. Which is the most abundant factor of production in India?

(a) Land (b) Capital (c) Labour (d) Tools and machines

40. Multiple Cropping refers to

(a) Cultivation of wheat and rice

(b) cultivation of two crops in alternate rows

(d) cultivating crops and rearing animals on the same farm

DATE: DAY:

2. PEOPLE AS A RESOURCE

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. Why is literacy rate is low in the females?

(a) Lack of equal education opportunities (b) lack of transport facilities

2. Which state has highest literacy rate as per 2001?

(a) Kerala (b) Madhya Pradesh (c) Bihar (d) Orissa

3. Which of the following is a significant step towards providing basic education to the children in the age group of 6-14 years?

(a) Sarva Siksha Abhiyan (b) Adult Education Programme

4. Market activity known as production for

(a) Exchange (b) earning income (c) earning profit (d) all the above

5. Increase in longevity of life is an indicator of

(a) Good quality of life (b) improvement in health sector

6. What is Self-consumption is called

(a) Non-production activity (b) non-market activity

7. Which one from the following is include in Secondary sector includes

(a) Trade (b) marketing (c) manufacturing (d) education

8. One who can read and write in any language with understanding is termed as

(a) Student (b) adult (c) child (d) literate

9. What is India’s position in scientifically and technically manpower in the world?

(a) First (b) second (c) third (d) fourth

10. Investment in human capital is expenditure on

(a) Education (b) training (c) medical care (d) all the above

11. The scheme for the establishment of residential schools to impart education to talented children from rural areas is

(a) Kendriya Vidyalayas (b) Navodaya Vidyalayas

12. Services of housewives are included in

(a) National income (b) domestic income (c) household income (d) none of the above

13. Infant mortality rate refers to the death of a child under the age of

(a) 1 year (b) 2 years (c) 3 years (d) 4 years

14. Choose the non-market activities

(i) Vilas sells fish in the village market (ii) Vilas cooks food for his family (iii) Sakal works in a private firm (iv) Sakal looks after his younger brother and sister

(a) (i) & (ii) (b) (iii) & (iv) (c) (i) & (iii) (d) (ii) & (iv)

15. Which one from the following is the primary sector activity?

(i) Forestry (ii) Poultry farming (iii) Animal husbandry (iv) Manufacturing

(a) (i) (b) (i), (ii), (iii)

16. What are Tertiary sector provides

(a) Services (b) goods

17. The quality of population depends on

(a) Literacy rate (b) health (c) Skill (d) all the above

18. People as a resource refers to the

(a) Educational skills (b) productive skills (c) Health skills (d) none of the above

19. Where is Seasonal unemployment found?

(a) Urban areas (b) rural areas

20. Bribe taking by parent is an

(a) Economic activity (b) marketing activity

21. The persons who are not working by their own willing is covered under

(a) Seasonal unemployment (b) disguised unemployment

22. Disguised unemployment when the number of persons working on a farm is

(a) Only what is required (b) more than required

23. If a person cannot find jobs during some months of the year, which type of employment is this called?

(a) Structural unemployment (b) Cyclical unemployment

24. What is the literacy rate of India as per 2011 census?

(a) 60% (b) 62% (c) 74.04% (d) 70%

25. What is the sex-ratio of India According to 2001 census?

(a) 921 females per 1000 (b) 930 females per 1000

26. Forestry and dairy are related to which?

(a) Primary Sector (b) Tertiary Sector (c) Secondary Sector (d) None of the above

27. What is the expended form of PHC?

(a) Public Health Club (b) Private Health Club

28. From the following in which fields is disguised unemployment found?

(a) Industries (b) Agriculture (c) Mining (d) Fisheries

29. What is the aim of Sarva Siksha Abhiyan?

(a) To provide elementary education to women

(b) To provide elementary education to the rural poor

(d) To provide elementary education to the urban poor

30. Which one from the following is related to the tertiary sector?

(a) Agriculture (b) Forestry (c) Mining (d) Communication

31. Which one from the following is the most labour absorbing sector?

(a) Agriculture (b) Fisheries (c) Poultry farming (d) Mining

32. Which one is an economic activity in the following?

(a) Work of Nurse at her home (b) Work of Doctor at their home

33. Which one of the following is considered important to create a 'virtuous cycle' by the parents?

(a) To send their children to the school

(b) To provide goods food to their children

(d) To take care of the health and education of their children

34. Infant mortality rate in 2001 was:

(a) 85 (b) 70 (c) 75 (d) 35

35. What is the life expectancy in India as per the census of 2000?

(a) 72 years (b) 53 years (c) 64 years (d) 80 years

36. Tenth Plan endeavoured to increase enrolment in higher education from 6% to:

(a) 7% (b) 9% (c) 10% (d) 12%

37. Decrease in IMR (Infant Mortality Rate) of a country signifies:

(a) Increase in life expectancy (b) Increase in GNP

38. Which one is odd in the following (with reference to population)?

(a) Education (b) Medical Care (c) Training (d) Computers

39. The number of females per thousand males refers to:

(a) Sex Ratio (b) Literacy Rate (c) Infant Mortality Rate (d) Birth Rate

DATE: DAY:

3. POVERTY AS CHALLENGE

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. Which country of South-East Asia made rapid economic growth?

(a) India (b) China (c) Nepal (d) Pakistan

2. NFWP is stand for:

(a) National Federation for Work and Progress (b) National Forest for Wildlife Protection

3. Social exclusion denies certain individuals the

(a) Facilities (b) benefits (c) opportunity (d) all the above

4. How many people in India live below the poverty line?

(a) 30 crores (b) 26 crores (c) 28 crores (d) 24 crores

5. Which organization carries out survey for determining the poverty line?

(a) NSSO (b) CSO (c) Planning Commission (d) None of the above

6. Which social group is most vulnerable to poverty in India?

(a) Scheduled castes (b) Scheduled tribes (c) Casual labourers (d) All the above

7. Which two states of India continue to be the poorest states?

(a) Madhya Pradesh, Jammu & Kashmir (b) Uttar Pradesh, Uttarakhand

8. Poverty line in rural areas is (As per 1999 – 2000 prices)

(a) Rs 328 (b) Rs. 370 (c) Rs 454 (d) Rs. 460

9. Who are the poorest of the poor?

(a) Women (b) Old people (c) Children (d) All the above

10. What is the poverty ratio in the state of Orissa?

(a) 50% (b) 47 % (c) 60% (d) 57%

11. In which state has the high agricultural growth helped to reduce poverty?

(a) Jammu & Kashmir (b) West Bengal (c) Punjab (d) Gujarat

12. In which state have the land reform measures helped to reduce poverty?

(a) Tamil Nadu (b) Punjab (c) West Bengal (d) Kerala

13. Which state has focused more on human resource development?

(a) Gujarat (b) Madhya Pradesh (c) Maharashtra (d) Kerala

14. In which state is the public distribution system responsible for the reduction in poverty?

(a) Andhra Pradesh (b) Tamil Nadu (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of the above

15. What is the main cause of poverty in India?

(a) High income inequalities (b) Less job opportunities

16. Which of the following is responsible for high poverty rates?

(a) Huge income inequalities (b) Unequal distribution of land

17. In rural areas, which of the following are not poor?

(a) Landless agricultural workers (b) Backward classes

18. Nutritional level of food energy is expressed in the form of

(a) Calories per day (b) wheat consumption

19. As per Planning Commission, minimum daily intake of calories for determining poverty line for rural area is

(a) 2100 (b) 2400 (c) 1500 (d) none of the above

20. Poverty ratio in India as compared to Pakistan is

(a) Same (b) half (c) two times (d) two and half times

21. What is accepted average calories required in India in urban areas?

(a) 2100 (b) 2400 (c) 2800 (d) 2500

22. Which one from the following is considered as poor?

(a) A rich landlord (b) A businessman (c) A landless labourer (d) A teacher

23. Which among the following is the method to estimate the poverty line?

(a) Investment method (b) Income method (c) Capital method (d) Human method

24. Which state has the largest percentage of poor in India?

(a) Bihar (b) Orissa (c) Kerala (d) Punjab

25. When was National Rural Employment Guarantee Act passed?

(a) September 2005 (b) August 2004 (c) May 2009 (d) None of these

26. Who advocated that India would be truly independent only when the poorest of its people become free of human suffering?

(a) Mahatma Gandhi (b) Indira Gandhi (c) Jawaharlal Nehru (d) Subhash Chandra Bose

27. Which of the following programmes was launched in the year 2000?

(a) National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (b) Prime Minister Rojgar Yojana

28. Who do not come under the category of urban poor?

(a) The casual workers (b) The unemployed (c) The shopkeeper (d) Rickshawpullers

29. How many percent of Indian people were poor in the year 2000?

(a) 36% (b) 46% (c) 26% (d) 29%

30. Which scheme was started in 1993 to create self-employment opportunities for educated unemployed youth in rural areas and small towns?

(a) Prime Minister Rojgar Yojana

(b) National Rural Employment Guarantee Act

(d) Swarnajayanti Gram Swarojgar Yojana

31. For how many days MNREGA provides employment?

(a) 70 (b) 80 (c) 90 (d) 100

32. Which one of the social groups is vulnerable to poverty?

(a) Scheduled caste (b) Urban casual labour

33. By which year governments are aiming to meet the Millennium Development Goals including halving the rate of global poverty?

34. Which one are not the major causes of income inequality in India?

(a) Unequal distribution of land (b) Lack of fertile land

35. In which of the following countries did poverty actually rise from 1981 to 2001?

(a) Sub-Saharan Africa (b) India (c) China (d) Russia

36. The calorie requirement is higher in the rural areas because:

(a) They do not enjoy as much as people in the urban areas.

(b) Food items are expensive.

(d) People are engaged in physical labour.

37. Which of the following is an indicator of poverty in India?

(a) Income level (b) Illiteracy level (c) Employment level (d) All of these

38. Which of the following is not a valid reason for the poverty alleviation programme in India?

(a) Lack of proper implementation (b) Lack of right targeting

39. Which industry suffered the most during colonial period?

(a) Jute (b) Textile (c) Indigo (d) All the above

40. Which one from the following states is above the national average of poverty ratio?

(a) West Bengal (b) Tamil Nadu (c) Andhra Pradesh (d) Karnataka

DATE: DAY:

4. FOOD SECURITY IN INDIA

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. The most affected groups in rural areas facing food insecurity are:

(a) Landless people (b) traditional artisans

2. MSP is stand for:

(a) Minimum Support Price (b) Maximum Support Price

3. Green Revolution of 1960s was associated with:

(a) Use of HYV seeds (b) tree plantation programme

4. P D S is associated with:

(a) Fair price shops (b) cooperative stores

5. Revamped Public Distribution System provides benefits to:

(a) Cities (b) remote and backward areas

6. White Revolution of the country is associated to:

(a) Sugar (b) milk (c) paper (d) none of the above

7. Annapurna Scheme fulfils the food requirements of:

(a) Indigent senior citizens (b) children (c) pregnant ladies (d) young persons

8. Antyodaya cards are related to

(a) All poor (b) poorest of the poor

9. Antyodaya Anna Yojana and Annapurna Scheme are linked with:

(a) Public distribution system (b) mid-day meal

10. Under the Public Distribution System food grains given per family per month are:

(a) 40 kg (b) 35 kg (c) 25 kg (d) 20 kg

11. In which state more than 90% ration shops are run by cooperatives

(a) Andhra Pradesh (b) Tamil Nadu (c) Orissa (d) Bihar

12. The society which facilitated setting up of grain banks in different regions is:

(a) Amul (Gujarat) (b) Academy of Development Science (Maharashtra)

13. NREGA provides:

(a) 200-days of assured work (b) 100-days of assured work

14. Minimum Support Price is announced by the government to provide

(a) incentives to farmers for raising production

(b) incentives to traders to earn maximum profit from farmers

(d) none of the above

15. Seasonal hunger mostly found in

(a) urban areas (b) rural areas (c) metro cities (d) both (a) and (b)

16. In which crop largest increase in production as a result of Green Revolution?

(a) wheat (b) rice (c) maize (d) none of the above

17. Main purpose of buffer stock is

(a) to save food grains from pest attack (b) to stop price fluctuations

18. Who is the nodal officer at district level?

(a) Commissioner (b) Superintendent of police (c) District officer (d) Collector

19.What is Food security means

(a) availability of food (b) accessibility of food

20. Massive starvation takes place due to

(a) rise in the price of essential commodities (b) decline in production of foodgrains

21. Chronic hunger refers to

(a) low income (b) inadequate quantity of food

22. The most devastating famine occurred in India in 1943 in

(a) Assam (b) Bengal (c) Bihar (d) Orissa

23. In which of the following states do we find the largest number of food insecure people?

(a) Bihar, Jharkhand and Orissa (b) Bihar, Jharkhand and Gujarat

24. In which state of India, Amul Dairy is situated?

(a) Rajasthan (b) Gujarat (c) Karnataka (d) Bihar

25. Who released a special stamp entitled ‘Wheat Revolution’ in July 1968?

(a) Mahatma Gandhi (b) Indira Gandhi

26. The price that is announced before the sowing season is called

(a) Issue price (b) Fair price (c) Market price (d) Minimum support price

27. To whom the yellow card is issued?

(a) To shop keeper (b) To land lord's

28. Which are the special target groups in Antyodaya Anna Yojana?

(a) Poorest of the poor (b) Poor and non-poor

29. Food for Work Programme was launched in which of the following years?

30. Kalahandi is situated in which of the following states?

(a) Orissa (b) Punjab (c) Rajasthan (d) Bihar

31. The Mother Dairy is an important cooperative in .

(a) Gujarat (b) Punjab (c) Haryana (d) Delhi

32. Women and children under the age of five are food insecure population due to:

(a) Malnutrition (b) Healthy diet (c) Fats (d) None of the above

33. F.C.I. stands for

(a) Foreign Co-operation with India (b) Food Corporation of India

34. Which among the following schemes was started in the year 2000 for the indigent senior citizens?

(a) PDS (b) NFWP (c) SGSY (d) APS

35. Name the cooperative that provides milk and vegetables controlled rate decided by the Government of Delhi:

(a) Amul (b) Kendriya Bhandar (c) Mother Dairy (d) None of these

36. Which among the following schemes was initiated for the poor in all areas?

(a) TPDS (b) RPDS (c) AAY (d) All of these

37. Buffer stock is the stock of foodgrains procured by the government through

(a) IFCI (b) FCI (c) IDBI (d) FICCI

38. In which part of the country, grain banks have been set up by NGO's?

(a) Gujarat (b) Haryana (c) Punjab (d) Maharashtra

39. When was the Antyodaya Anna Yojana scheme launched?

(a) In Jan 1999 (b) In May 2000 (c) In Dec 2000 (d) In October 2005

40. Percentage of seasonal as well as chronic hunger in India over the years has

(a) increased (b) decreased (c) remained constant (d) None of these

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